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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 03:58

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What are "demonic attacks" and how can one tell when they're happening to them, or someone else? How would one go about dealing with it?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why don’t Jews regard Jesus as an important teacher or rabbi, if not the Messiah? Putting aside messianic claims, wouldn’t Jesus be one of the most significant Jewish teachers in human history?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.